
Originally Posted by
Sinfix_15
The only link to gay marriage is that the people did in fact vote AGAINST it and the court upheld it anyways. So, with political influence, muslims could render a result that was against the will of the people, is this not correct?
Theoretically speaking....... lets say something crazy happened, like we had a muslim president who appointed other muslims to his cabinet and then they appointed judges who would rule in their favor....
With political influence could muslims not some day gain the right for their religious laws to be honored in the united states? the same way homosexuals have? them being a minority and having the vote of the majority against them?